The Praise Band leader in our Church and I are having a mild debate about a certain chord. The chord is a G2, which I thought was the same as a Gadd9.
He plays it with this fingering:
E ------3-------
B ------3-------
G ------0-------
D ------0-------
A ------2-------
E ------3-------
If my theory is correct, a G2 or Gadd9 would have have the 2nd step of the G scale, A, in it somewhere. This fingering does not. In fact, the notes in this fingering, starting with the root, G B D G D G, are the 1st, 3rd & 5th of the G scale. Wouldn't that make this a G chord as opposed to a G2? He says it is some kind of inversion.
I would think this would be a more correct fingering:
E ------3------
B ------0------
G ------2------
D ------0------
A ------0------
E ------3------
What d'ya think?
He plays it with this fingering:
E ------3-------
B ------3-------
G ------0-------
D ------0-------
A ------2-------
E ------3-------
If my theory is correct, a G2 or Gadd9 would have have the 2nd step of the G scale, A, in it somewhere. This fingering does not. In fact, the notes in this fingering, starting with the root, G B D G D G, are the 1st, 3rd & 5th of the G scale. Wouldn't that make this a G chord as opposed to a G2? He says it is some kind of inversion.
I would think this would be a more correct fingering:
E ------3------
B ------0------
G ------2------
D ------0------
A ------0------
E ------3------
What d'ya think?
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